Problems in Pronouncing "Tolkien"

It's well-known that Tolkien pronounced his name tol-keen, not tol-kin (like most Americans do) ... but here's a conundrum. Did he emphasize the first syllable, or the second? In other words, TOLL-keen or toll-KEEN?

Reading Bowers's Tolkien's Lost Chaucer, which is fantastic, and he says that he confirmed that the accent's on the second syllable through people who worked with him. (His first source was Reynolds Price's Ardent Spirits: Leaving Home, Coming Back, 2009), and then he confirmed Tolkien's supervisee V. A. Kolve. 

However, in CS Lewis's essay "The Alliterative Meter," he clearly puts the accent on the first syllable. The line goes like this (the capitals belong to Lewis): "We were TALKing of DRAGONS | TOLkien and I". So, Tol-keen.

I'm going with Lewis here for now, because part of me has really never cared about proper pronunciation. So, personally, I'll keep saying Tolk-kin, like a good 'Murican. Still, the question has me slightly interested.


EDIT: Well, one of the applied linguistics on my friends list just gave the following response:
English phonotactics don’t really allow an unstressed ‘een’ sound, so it either gets reduced to a schwa or gets primary stress
When people start throwing around words like "phonotactics", I bow out. However, that does seem to settle the question -- Tolkien would have pronounced things tol-KEEN. Interesting that Lewis gets it wrong, though.

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